lordmullin

I didn't say I had two visas, just that I happen to be retired - and I'm on a married visa. Anyway, academic - if I could close this post I would. I get the gist, already ????

Okay, thanks to all of you. I won't be paying anyone off, or bending any rules, or anything else to jeopardise my status here, so that's that. I was just running the options, see if it was simple - clearly not! Cheers everyone.

Wow... More great Intel, thanks everybody. I'm clear on this now. I'll stay at home, she can run the biz!

Will do, thanks Charlie????????

Excellent, thanks for that????

Thanks for that, Bamb... That's clear????

Thank you both, for your answers. Is it fraught with pitfalls, to apply for a work permit, whilst on a married visa and retired?

As you probably guessed from the title, this is about what I'm allowed to do if my wife buys a business. I'm 57 and on a married visa. If my wife buys a small resort (a few bungalows around a pool) where would I stand, legally, regarding 'helping out around the place'? Maybe checking guests in, doing the meet'n'greet kind of thing? There's no bar or cafe - just the bungalows, so I wouldn't be visibly manning a counter or anything. Thanks for any help.

Dinga - kop khun khap ????

Thanks for that - it's all pretty grim reading! How come I keep hearing that 'a Farang can buy a condo, but only buy a house if the land is owned by the Thai and the building that sits on it, is owned by the Farang'? None of what you guys are saying sounds like that ???? I really appreciate the input, by the way - if there's any more I need to hear it!

Thanks Stu - any advance on this bit: ? 'what's this I read about the house being in the Farang's name and the land being in the Thai's name? '

Wow... okay, lots to think about - but what's this I read about the house being in the Farang's name and the land being in the Thai's name? I would be okay with that - is that not fairly straightforward? The way some people talk about it (friends over there) there's a kind of mutual security about it; neither party can sell their part of it, without the agreement of the other - is this not true? Thanks again ????

Thanks Stu and Chalawaan. Stu, can I ask please: do you mean I have to renounce all claim to the property, if I funnel the cash through my wife's account? Thanks again.

Hi, I have a feeling I've seen something before, about buying a property (I understand and accept the Thai-owns-the-land/Farang-owns-the-building principle) in which the Farang cannot be seen to transfer the money to his wife's account, to buy the property....? Something about signing a waiver, renouncing all claim to that money...? I would like to just transfer the money to the seller, but apparently that's not the way. Anyone with a firm grip on this please advise! Many thanks ????